My dominant eye -2.50 does that mean that is my acuity?!
Question: My dominant eye -2.50 does that mean that is my acuity?
Here's my question = my dominant eye is -2.50 my non dominant eye is -1.50
Is my vision -2.50 because that is the eye that sees most, or is it whatever the better vision is?
Answers:
Best Answer - Chosen by Voters
Ocular dominance actually has more to do with the brain than the eye. It's the tendency to prefer visual input from one eye to the other and it's a concept similar to the laterality of right or left handedness. However the side of the dominant eye and the dominant hand do not always match. There's no correlation between visual acuity and eye dominance. Dominance can't be derived from your glasses/contacts prescription because it's an entirely different matter. There are a few simple ways to determine dominance. For example: cut a hole (a couple of inches wide) in a piece of paper. Hold the paper in front of you and look at a distant object through the hole, then look at it with just one eye open at a time. You'll notice that one eye won't see the object while the other one will. The eye that sees the object is your dominant eye.
The expression "dominant eye" might also be intended in a different and simpler way, i.e. the eye that sees better. The eye with -2.50 sees worse than the other, because -2.50 indicates a worse vision than -1.50.
Without your glasses ON , your right eye..the dominant eye with the - 2.50 would have worse vision than your left.
The - 2.50 is a stronger lens, than the - 1.50...therefore, your right eye is weaker.
Your right eye needs a stronger lens, but you most likely see 20/20 with both eyes with your glasses on.
Optician
No its your perscirption. Its the correction you need to make you see 20/20. 20/20 is the accuity. Drs don't give you that they give you the perscription. Unless you have 20/20. But those people don't go to the eye dr