Is there a big difference between -2 and -2.50 and -2.50 and -3 or not?!


Question: Is there a big difference between -2 and -2.50 and -2.50 and -3 or not?
In practical terms of what someone would see how much difference is there between someone with a prescription of -2 and -2.50 and someone with -2.50 and -3.00?
Would the difference in what they could each see WITHOUT their glasses be very dramatically different or really quite similar?

Answers:

Best Answer - Chosen by Voters

Some people have a much higher tolerance for blur, so comparisons are difficult , but in general the one with the - 2.00 would be able to suppress the blur in that eye a lot easier than the other eye, so could probably function a lot better without glasses , using mainly that eye with the - 2.00

At - 2.50 it becomes a lot more difficult to do , so the second person would normally have more blur, even in the best eye.

But, I have seen some that are comfortable rarely wearing their glasses even with - 3.00 in both eyes.

They probably get by with a bit more squinting which helps clear up the blur. Even different pupil size can affect how one sees without glasses compared to another person of the same prescription.

Optician




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